How do you find the taylor series of f(x)=sinxf(x)=sinx at a=pi/6a=π6?

2 Answers
Mar 30, 2016

sin(x) = x-x^3/(3!) +x^5/(5!)-x^7/(7!) + cdots sin(x)=xx33!+x55!x77!+ for all xx
sin(x)=sum_(n=0)^oo (-1)^n/((2n+1)!)x^(2n+1) sin(x)=n=0(1)n(2n+1)!x2n+1

sin(x)_(x=(pi/6)) = pi/6-(pi/6)^3/(3!)+(pi/6)^5/(5!)-(pi/6)^7/(7!)+(pi/6)^9/(9!)sin(x)x=(π6)=π6(π6)33!+(π6)55!(π6)77!+(π6)99!

sin(x)=.523599-.02392+.000328-2.1xx10^-6+8.15xx10-9~~.5 sin(x)=.523599.02392+.0003282.1×106+8.15×109.5
Using Calculator: =>sin(pi/6)=.5sin(π6)=.5

Explanation:

Solution Strategy:
Use the definition of Taylor series for a function, f(x)f(x) given by:
f(x)=f(a) + f^'(a)(x-a)/1! +f^('')(a)(x-a)^2/2! +f^(3)(a)(x-a)^(3)/(3! )+cdots+ f^(n)(a)(x-a)^n/(n!) + cdots

1) f(x) = sum_(n=0)^oo f^(n)(a)(x-a)^n/(n!)
Expansion f(x) around zero will yield
f(x) = sum_(n=0)^oo f^(n)(0)(x)^n/(n!) this McLaurin Series
a special case of Taylor series
2) Find the
(df(x))/(dx)|_(x=0) = cos(0) =1

(d^(2)f(x))/(dx)^2|_(x=a) = -sin(0) =0

(d^(3)f(x))/(dx)^3|_(x=a) = -cos(0) = -1

(d^(4)f(x))/(dx)^3|_(x=a) = -sin(0) = 0

(d^(5)f(x))/(dx)^5|_(x=a) = cos(0) = 1
vdots

We see that all even derivatives are zero and all odd derivative toggle between -1 and 1. Thus we write

sin(x) = x-x^3/(3!) +x^5/(5!)-x^7/(7!) + cdots for all x
sin(x)=sum_(n=0)^oo (-1)^n/((2n+1)!)x^(2n+1)

Now let's evaluate sin(x) at pi/6 for the first 5 terms:

sin(x)_(x=(pi/6)) = pi/6-(pi/6)^3/(3!)+(pi/6)^5/(5!)-(pi/6)^7/(7!)+(pi/6)^9/(9!)

sin(x)=.523599-.02392+.000328-2.1xx10^-6+8.15xx10-9~~.5
Using Calculator: =>sin(pi/6)=.5

It is likely that your calculator is using Taylor or likely MAcLaurin series to compute, sin(x)

Mar 26, 2017

sin(x) = sum_(n=0)^oo (-1)^n(((x-pi/6)^(2n))/(2*(2n)!) + (sqrt3(x-pi/6)^(2n+1))/(2*(2n+1)!))

Explanation:

I believe the question is asking for a Taylor series centered around a = pi/6, rather than evaluating the Maclaurin series for sin(x).

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

First, calculate the first few derivatives of f(x) = sin(x).

f(x) = sin(x)
f'(x) = cos(x)
f''(x) = -sin(x)
f'''(x) = -cos(x)
f^(4)(x) = sin(x)

Since f^((4))(x) is the same as f(x), the derivatives of sin(x) will continue to cycle like this forever.

Now, we plug in pi/6 to these derivatives.

f(pi/6) = sin(pi/6) = 1/2
f'(pi/6) = cos(pi/6) = sqrt3/2
f''(pi/6) = -sin(pi/6)= -1/2
f'''(pi/6) = -cos(pi/6)= -sqrt3/2
f^((4))(pi/6) = sin(pi/6) = 1/2

The formula for the nth term of a Taylor polynomial around x=a is:

f^((n))(a)/(n!)*(x-a)^n

So, we can write out the first few terms of our Taylor polynomial for sin(x) (remember to start with term 0, using f^((0))(a) = f(a)):

sin(x) = (1/2)/(0!) * (x-pi/6)^0+(sqrt3/2)/(1!) * (x-pi/6)^1 + (-1/2)/(2!) * (x-pi/6)^2 + (-sqrt3/2)/(3!) * (x-pi/6)^3 + (1/2)/(4!) * (x-pi/6)^4+...

Simplifying this a bit, we get:

sin(x) = 1/2 + (sqrt3(x-pi/6))/2 - (x-pi/6)^2/(2*2!) - (sqrt3(x-pi/6)^3)/(2*3!) + (x-pi/6)^4/(2*4!)+...

This is technically the final answer but the formal way to write it is with summation notation. If we group every two terms together, we can write this polynomial as:

sin(x) = sum_(n=0)^oo (-1)^n(((x-pi/6)^(2n))/(2*(2n)!) + (sqrt3(x-pi/6)^(2n+1))/(2*(2n+1)!))

And remember: don't be bogged down by how big or complex this summation is; it's just a set of instructions for writing out the polynomial we just made.

Final Answer