Question #d1d14

1 Answer
Mar 16, 2017

This is true, and the answers to questions above are:
Q4 - yes
Q5 - no
Q6 - yes

Explanation:

There are lots of divisibility rules. They're basically shortcuts for working out if you can divide by a number with no remainders leftover. Another example is that a number has to be even to be divisible by 2. [Other examples of divisibility rules can be seen by clicking here.](https://socratic.org/questions/what-s-the-quickest-way-to-determine-the-proper-divisors-of-a-number-by-hand?source=search)

In the question above, you are told the divisibility rule for 4 - if the last two digits of a number are divisible by 4, then the entire number is divisible by 4.

#color(red)("QUESTION FOUR (ABOVE)")#

The first question asks is 624 divisible by 4?

Using the rule given, you just need to focus on the last two digits - that is "24" and decide if that is divisible by 4.

The answer is yes, as #6xx4=24#.

Because 24 is divisible by 4, this means that 624 is divisible by 4 (with no remainders).

In fact, any number at all that ends in 24 (because of this rule you have been given) will be divisible by 4.

#color(red)("QUESTION FIVE (ABOVE)")#

Is 634 divisible by 4?

As before, look at the last two digits and determine if they're divisible by 4 (with no remainders).

#34/4= 8# remainder #2#.

As 34 is not divisible by 4, this means that 634 is not divisible by 4.

#color(red)("QUESTION SIX (ABOVE)")#

Is 172 divisible by 4?

As before, look at the last two digits and determine if they're divisible by 4 (with no remainders).

#72/4= 18#

As 72 is divisible by 4, this means that 172 is divisible by 4.