Why is cos(pi) and cos (-pi) both equal to -1?

3 Answers
Apr 22, 2015

One of the reasons is because cos is an even function.

This means that cosθ=cos(θ)

An example is the present case cosπ=cos(π)=1

Apr 22, 2015

A full circle is 2π

π is half way around the circle counter-clockwise.

π is half way around the circle clockwise.

cos(π)=cos(π) are the both cos values for the same place

They are both equal to (1)
because
if viewed as a unit circle centered on the Cartesian origin
the cos is the x value
and, at halfway around the unit circle,
x=1

Mar 30, 2017

This is what a cosine graph looks like. Since π in degrees is 180, it is exactly the same distance from 0 degrees.

Explanation:

graph{cos(x) [-4.76, 4.84, -2.64, 2.16]}