Why is cos(pi) and cos (-pi) both equal to -1?
3 Answers
Apr 22, 2015
One of the reasons is because
This means that
An example is the present case
Apr 22, 2015
A full circle is
They are both equal to
because
if viewed as a unit circle centered on the Cartesian origin
the
and, at halfway around the unit circle,
Mar 30, 2017
This is what a cosine graph looks like. Since
Explanation:
graph{cos(x) [-4.76, 4.84, -2.64, 2.16]}