Question #34ccf

1 Answer
May 30, 2017

theta = pi/3θ=π3 if cos(cos^-1(u))=ucos(cos1(u))=u

Explanation:

First notice that we can deduct some things from the equation:

cos(cos^-1(-pi/3))cos(cos1(π3))

We can't have cos^-1(-pi/3)cos1(π3) , it is outside the domain of the function f(x)=cos^-1(x)f(x)=cos1(x).
Howeve, because cos^-1(cos(x))=xcos1(cos(x))=x , the only way I see to move on, is to apply the same concept.

That means the equation from above tells us, that at some point, some angle was converted into -pi/3π3 radiens.

Imagine -pi/3π3 radiens on the unit circle. This angle is not within 0<=theta<=pi0θπ . In fact this translates to the upper half of the unit circle (see illustrations).enter image source here

You can see that:
Cos(-pi/3)=cos(2pi-pi/3)cos(π3)=cos(2ππ3)

Now calculate cos(2pi-pi/3)=0.5cos(2ππ3)=0.5
Using your prefered graph tool, you can also see that cos(x)=0.5cos(x)=0.5 has many more solutions. One particular solution exist in between cos(-pi/3)cos(π3) and cos(2pi-pi/3)cos(2ππ3), that is cos(pi/3)cos(π3).
This means:
cos(-pi/3)=cos(2pi-pi/3)=cos(pi/3)cos(π3)=cos(2ππ3)=cos(π3)

As you can see:
only one solution satisfies, 0<=theta<=pi0θπ , that is theta = pi/3θ=π3

Imagine theta=pi/3= cos^-1(cos(pi/3))=cos^-1(cos(-pi/3))θ=π3=cos1(cos(π3))=cos1(cos(π3)) , because cos(pi/3)=cos(-pi/3)cos(π3)=cos(π3)

and so if cos(cos^-1(u))=ucos(cos1(u))=u then we can write:
u=-pi/3u=π3

cos^-1(cos(-pi/3))=cos^-1(cos(u))=u=cos(cos^-1(u))=cos(cos^-1(-pi/3))cos1(cos(π3))=cos1(cos(u))=u=cos(cos1(u))=cos(cos1(π3))

To conclude, when theta=pi/3θ=π3 , it satisfies 0<=theta<=pi0θπ , and that can be rewritten to form the equation cos(cos^-1(-pi/3))=pi/3cos(cos1(π3))=π3 if cos(cos^-1(u))=ucos(cos1(u))=u

Idon't know... It makes sense for me to do it this way, but I would like someone to double check it for fundamental flaws :)