How do you demonstrate that, if #(df)/(dr)= (dg)/(dy)#, then #(df)/(dr)= (dg)/(dy) = K # where K is a constant ?
1 Answer
EDIT : I'm sorry i allow myself to edit your answer and answer my own question
Explanation:
explanation here :
Let's say that if
the only way the equality is respected is that the functions are equal to the same constant.
EDIT 2:
For the math
we derivate both side by