If f(x) =Cosx Then what is finverse(x)?

1 Answer
May 16, 2018

See the explanation please.

Explanation:

f(x)=cos(x)=> domain(-oo, oo), range[-1, 1]

y=cos(x)

x=cos(y)

y=+-cos^(-1)(x)

f^(-1)(x)=-cos^(-1)(x)=> domain[-1, 1], range[-pi, 0]

f^(-1)(x)=cos^(-1)(x)=> domain[-1, 1], range[0, pi]