My proof for this limit using the definition is correct? #lim to 2^+ (1/(x-2)) = +\infty#
My answer:
For all A > 0, exists #\delta# > 0 such that:
#(1/(x-2)) > A# so that 0 < x+2 < #\delta# .
Looking on inequality bellow between B, we have the key choose for #\delta# :
#(1/(x-2)) > A#
#(x-2) < 1/A#
#x < 1/A+2#
Like this, for #\delta# = #1/A+2# , we have #1/(x-2) > A# always that 0 < x-2 < #delta# .
My answer:
For all A > 0, exists
Looking on inequality bellow between B, we have the key choose for
Like this, for
1 Answer
See explanation
Explanation:
There is one mistake:
I might also want to refine the wording a little, for instance:
"For all A > 0, there exists a
Also, as the proof presupposes that
One other detail: You introduce B, but it's not clear where B belongs or what it refers to.