Question #e1fc3

1 Answer
Matt
Apr 14, 2017

It would be #120^0#

Explanation:

Given the forces are equal, it would be reasonable to assume they have the same angle between them as in the diagram below:

enter image source here

If we then consider components of forces in the x direction:

#F_2cos 30^0-F_1cos90^0-F_3cos30^0#
#=>F_2cos 30^0-F_3cos30^0#

Since #F_1=F_2=F_3# then the above equates to nil

Similarly in the y direction:

#F_1 -F_2sin 30^0-F_3sin30^0#
#=>F_1-0.5*F_2-0.5*F_3=0#

Hence no resultant force

Related questions
See all questions in What is Physics?
Impact of this question
2182 views around the world
You can reuse this answer
Creative Commons License