Letting f(x)=ln(1-x)f(x)=ln(1−x), you could use the formula f(0)+f'(0)x+(f''(0))/(2!)x^2+(f'''(0))/(3!)x^3+cdots to get the answer above.
However, it's more interesting (fun?) to use the geometric series 1/(1-x)=1+x+x^2+x^3+x^4+cdots and integrate it term by term, using the fact that ln(1-x)=-int 1/(1-x)\ dx, with C=0 since ln(1-0)=ln(1)=0.
Doing this gives:
ln(1-x)=-int (1+x+x^2+x^3+x^4+cdots)\ dx
=C-x-x^2/2-x^3/3-x^4/4-cdots
=-x-x^2/2-x^3/3-x^4/4-cdots
Since 1/(1-x)=1+x+x^2+x^3+cdots for |x|<1, this implies that the radius of convergence is 1.
However, an interesting thing happens at x=-1 for the series -x-x^2/2-x^3/3-x^4/4-cdots. It ends up equaling 1-1/2+1/3-1/4+cdots, which is the so-called Alternating Harmonic Series, which converges (though not "absolutely"). Moreover, it also happens to equal ln(1-(-1))=ln(2).
Hence, even though the radius of convergence is 1, the series for ln(1-x) converges and equals ln(1-x) over the half-open/half-closed interval [-1,1) (it doesn't converge at x=1 since it's the opposite of the Harmonic Series there).