How do you simplify sin(tan^-1(x))?

2 Answers
Oct 17, 2015

sin(arctan(x)) = |x|/sqrt(x^2+1)

Explanation:

Knowing that

sin^2(theta) + cos^2(theta) = 1

We divide both sides by sin^2(theta) so we have

1 + cot^2(theta) = csc^2(theta)

Or,

1 + 1/tan^2(theta) = 1/sin^2(theta)

Taking the least common multiple we have

(tan^2(theta) + 1)/tan^2(theta) = 1/sin^2(theta)

Inverting both sides we have

sin^2(theta) = tan^2(theta)/(tan^2(theta) + 1)

So we say that theta = arctan(x)

sin^2(arctan(x)) = tan^2(arctan(x))/(tan^2(arctan(x)) + 1)

Knowing that tan(arctan(x)) = x

sin^2(arctan(x)) = x^2/(x^2 + 1)

So we take the square root of both sides

sin(arctan(x)) = +-sqrt(x^2/(x^2+1)) = +-|x|/sqrt(x^2+1)

Checking the range of the arctangent, we see that during it the sine is always positive so we have

sin(arctan(x)) = |x|/sqrt(x^2+1)

Mar 15, 2016

sin(tan^-1(x))=x/sqrt(x^2+1)

Explanation:

We can use the principles of "SOH-CAH-TOA".

First, let's call sin(tan^-1(x))=sin(theta) where the angle theta=tan^-1(x).

More specifically, tan^-1(x)=theta is the angle when tan(theta)=x. We know this from the definition of inverse functions.

Since tan(theta)="opposite"/"adjacent", and here tan(theta)=x/1 we know that

{("opposite"=x),("adjacent"=1),("hypotenuse"=?):}

Using the Pythagorean Theorem, we can see that the hypotenuse of a right triangle with legs x and 1 has "hypotenuse"=sqrt(x^2+1).

Now, to find sin(tan^-1(x)), find sin(theta) for the triangle where

{("opposite"=x),("adjacent"=1),("hypotenuse"=sqrt(x^2+1)):}

Since sin(theta)="opposite"/"hypotenuse", we see that

sin(tan^-1(x))=x/sqrt(x^2+1)