How do you use linear Approximation to find the value of #(1.01)^10#?

2 Answers
May 26, 2017

#(1.01)^10 ~= 1.10#

with two significant digits.

Explanation:

Consider the function:

#f(x) = (1+x)^a# with #a > 0#

We have:

#f(0) = 1#

#f'(x) = a(1+x)^(a-1)#

#f'(0) = a#

Develop in MacLaurin series and stop at the linear term:

# (1+x)^a = f(0)+ (f'(0))/(1!) x +R_2(x) = 1+ax+R_1(x)#

Then we have for #x=1/100# and #a=10#:

#(1.01)^10 = 1+10*1/100 +R =1.1+R#

Consider now the second derivative:

#f''(x) = a(a-1)(1+x)^(a-2) = 90(1+x)^8#

For #x > 0# this is an increasing function, so we have:

#f''(x) < f''(1/100)# for #0 < x < 1/100#

or:

#abs(f''(x)) <= 90(1.01)^8#

So, using Lagrange's formula:

#abs(R_n(x)) <= absx^(n+1)/((n+1)!)max_(xi in (0,x)) abs (f^((n))(xi)#

we have:

#absR < 45/100^2(1.01)^8 ~=0.005#

May 27, 2017

#(1.01)^10 ~~1.1#
Using a calculator you should get#1.104622125...# , so the approximation is quite good.

Explanation:

Here's a slightly simpler, less comprehensive answer.

We let #f(x) = x^10#. Then #f'(x) = 10x^9#.

Now use the linear approximation formula, which is #y = f(a) + f'(a)(x - a# for a function #f(x)# approximated at a point close to #x = a#.

Our point will obviously be #a= 1#.

Also, #f(1) = 1#, #f'(1) = 10# and #x - a = 1.01 - 1 = 0.01#

Plugging this into our formula, we have:

#y = 1+ 10(0.01) = 1.1#

Note that this is a rough approximation. The further away you get from the point #x = a#, the less precise the approximation becomes.

Hopefully this helps!