How does central tendency relate to normal distribution?

1 Answer
Oct 5, 2017

Any normal distribution has a graph that is perfectly symmetric about a vertical line through its peak. Therefore, all measures of central tendency (most commonly, the mean, median, and mode) give the same answer: the x-value of the peak.

Explanation:

A normal distribution with mean mu and standard deviation sigma has formula f(x)=1/(sigma sqrt{2pi})e^(-(x-mu)^2/2).

The graph of this function is the classical "bell-shaped curve". The standard normal distribution with mu=0 and sigma=1 is shown below.

graph{(1/sqrt(2pi))*e^(-x^2/2) [-2.5, 2.5, -1.25, 1.25]}

The mean of a general normal distribution is equal to the improper integral

int_{-infty}^{infty}xf(x)dx=1/(sigma sqrt{2pi}) int_{-infty}^{infty}xe^(-(x-mu)^2/2)dx.

This integral is not too hard to do when mu=0 (use a substitution u=-x^2/2 in that case). It can't be done with elementary functions when mu!=0, but other techniques (moment generating functions ) can still be used to show it equals mu in that case (in other words, the mean is the mean!! lol!!...see above for the name of mu).

The median is the value of M such that int_{-infty}^{M}f(x)dx=1/2. The convergence of the integral and the symmetry of the graph about the vertical line at x=mu can be used to say M=mu as well.

The mode is the x-value of the global maximum of this graph. Setting f'(x)=0 and solving for x implies this global maximum occurs at x=mu (you should check this). The mode is therefore x=mu as well.

All the measures of central tendency therefore give the same answer: the x-value of the peak of the graph.