How to prove that int_0^oo0(e^(-alphax)sinx)/x dx=cot^-1alphaeαxsinxxdx=cot1α given that int_0^oo sinx/x dx = pi/20sinxxdx=π2?

1 Answer
May 19, 2018

See below

Explanation:

I(alpha) = int_0^oo \ (e^(-alphax)sinx)/x dx

Liebnitz diff under the integral sign:

(dI)/(d alpha) = int_0^oo \ - x (e^(-alphax)sinx)/x dx

=- int_0^oo \ e^(-alphax)sinx \ dx

That is very do-able on its own, but is also the Laplace transform of sin x:

  • (dI)/(d alpha) =- mathbb L_alpha ( sin x) = - 1/(1 + alpha^2)

-implies I(alpha) =- int 1/(1 + alpha^2) \ d alpha= - tan ^(-1) alpha + C

We have an IV:

I(0) = pi/2 = C

implies I(alpha) = - tan ^(-1) alpha + pi/2

And from a trig identity for alpha > 0:

cot^(-1) alpha = = - tan ^(-1) alpha + pi/2

implies I(alpha) = cot ^(-1) alpha