If the function f(x) = (1 - x)tan(pix/2)f(x)=(1x)tan(πx2) is continuous at x = 1x=1, then f(1)f(1) is ??

2 Answers
Aug 15, 2017

The function ff is not defined at 11 so it is not continuous at x=1x=1, but see below.

Explanation:

If we want the function

f(x) = {((1-x)tan((pix)/2)," ",x != 1),(k," ",x=1):}

to be continuous, we can find f(1) = k to make f continuous at x=1.

The requirement for continuous at x=1 is

lim_(xrarr1)f(x) = f(1).

lim_(xrarr1)f(x) = lim_(xrarr1)(1-x)tan((pix)/2)

= lim_(xrarr1)sin((pix)/2)(1-x)/cos((pix)/2)

= lim_(xrarr1)sin((pix)/2) lim_(xrarr1)(1-x)/cos((pix)/2)

The first limit is 1 and the second has form 0/0 so we'll use l'Hospital's Rule

= (1) lim_(xrarr1)(-1)/(-pi/2 sin((pix)/2))

= 2/pi

So, we need f(1) = 2/pi

Aug 15, 2017

f(1)=2/pi.

Explanation:

For the given fun. f to be cont. at x=1, we must have,

lim_(x to 1)f(x)=f(1).

:. f(1)=lim_(x to 1) (1-x)tan (pix/2).........(ast).

Let, x=1+h, i.e., (x-1)=h," so that, as "x to 1, h to 0.

:., by (ast), f(1)=lim_(h to 0) {-h*tan(pi/2(1+h))},

=lim_(h to 0){-h*tan(pi/2+pi/2h)},

=lim_(h to 0){(-h)(-cot(pi/2h))},

=lim_(h to 0) hcot(pi/2h),

=lim_(h to 0) (h/sin(pi/2h))*cos (pi/2h),

=lim_(h to 0){(pi/2h)/sin(pi/2h)*(2/pi)}cos(pi/2h),

={1*(2/pi)}cos0....[because, lim_(y to o) y/siny=1],

rArr f(1)=2/pi, as Respected Jim H. Sir has shown!