Is arctan(x) = cot(x) true?

1 Answer
Oct 23, 2015

No.

Explanation:

#arctan(x)# is the inverse function of #tan(x)#, and it means that, if #y=arctan(x)#, then #y# is a number such that #tan(y)=x#.

In general, #f# is the inverse function of #g# if #f(g(x))=g(f(x))=x#.

On the other hand, #cot(x)# simply is #1/tan(x)#, so it's simply the inverse number of #tan(x)#.

So, you have that, as a function, #arctan(x)# is the inverse of #tan(x)#, which means that composing the two functions results in the identity function. In formulas,

#artan(tan(x))=tan(arctan(x)=x#.

Instead, as a number (i.e. you must fix #x#), #cot(x)# is the inverse of #tan(x)#, which means that multiplying the two numbers gives one as a result:

#tan(x)cot(x)=1# for every #x#.