Is it correct to write $1^{\circ} = \frac{2 π}{360^{\circ}}$ $1^@ = (2pi)/360^@$ ? Yes or no, and also why?

Question

2188 views around the world

You can reuse this answer
Creative Commons License

Answer 1 · 2018-04-17T07:35:19

Yes

We know that $360^{\circ} = 2 π radians$ $360^circ = 2pi " radians "$

Hence deciding both sides by $360$ $360$

$\Rightarrow 1^{\circ} = \frac{2 π}{360} radians$ $=> 1^circ = (2pi)/(360) " radians "$

Hence your statement is correct

Is it correct to write 1∘=2π360∘1^@ = (2pi)/360^@? Yes or no, and also why?