Is $y = z$ an inverse variation?

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Answer 1 · 2015-06-11T13:06:13

No.

In an inverse variation, two or more factors change together so that their product is constant.

In a direct variation, one or more factors change relative to another factor, by a certain scale or constant.

This is a direct variation with a constant of 1, since $z$ will always be 1 time what $y$ is.

Is y = zy = z an inverse variation?