Please solve q 82?

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2 Answers
Apr 3, 2018

The value of gg would change almost not at all. There is a small reduction in the downward force acting on a body due to the rotation of Earth, but its magnitude is far smaller than the gravitational force at the surface.

Explanation:

In response to this question, I calculated the answer to this question, if we were at the equator, where the change would be greatest: https://socratic.org/questions/5667107b7c01493f09503ec0?source=search

It turns out that the rotational motion's contribution is about 1/300013000 that of the gravitational field. I maintain that that means there is essentially no change.

Apr 3, 2018

"(3) increases"(3) increases

Explanation:

Acceleration due to gravity at a latitude (phiϕ) is given as

"g"_(phi) = "g"_"e" - "R"ω^2cos^2(phi)

where

  • "g"_"e" =Acceleration due to gravity at equator
  • "R =" Radius of Earth
  • ω =Angular Velocity with which earth is rotating
  • phi =Angle between the equatorial plane and the line joining the point where acceleration due to gravity is "g"_phi to the centre of the earth. It ranges from at equator to 90° at poles.

When Earth was rotating

"g"_1 = "g"_"e" - "R"ω^2cos(phi)

Note: cos^2(phi) can’t be negative. As phi ranges from to 90° only.

When Earth stops rotating (ω = 0)

"g"_2 = "g"_"e" - 0

"g"_2 = "g"_"e"

In second case we are not subtracting any term from "g"_"e". Therefore, "g"_2 > "g"_1. Acceleration is increased.

_If you’re interested to know the derivation of that equation, [click here.](https://hemantmore.org/physics-1/p11202004/3882)_