Question #006e9

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Question #006e9

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Answer 1 · 2017-08-27T08:15:54

$1 \frac{1}{4}$ $1 1/4$ $cups$ $"cups"$

Explanation:

Because if you turn $\frac{1}{2}$ $1/2$ cups into the same denominator as $\frac{3}{4}$ $3/4$ cups, then the question becomes

$\frac{3}{4} cups + \frac{2}{4} cups = \frac{5}{4} cups$ $3/4 "cups" + 2/4 "cups" = 5/4 "cups"$

Now, to further simplify that answer, you'll have to divide the numerator $5$ $5$ by the denominator $4$ $4$ . You can only use this method if the numerator is bigger than the denominator.

You divide $5$ $5$ by $4$ $4$ you would have $1$ $1$ and a remainder of $1$ $1$ the first $1$ $1$ is one whole and the second one is one-quarter. In numbers, it would look like $1$ $1$ whole and $\frac{1}{4}$ $1/4$ which is

$1 \frac{1}{4}$ $1 1/4$ $cups$ $"cups"$

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Question #006e9

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