Is it possible for a function to be continuous at all points in its domain and also have a one-sided limit equal to +infinite at some point?

1 Answer
Jul 27, 2015

Yes, it is possible. (But the point at which the limit is infinite cannot be in the domain of the function.)

Explanation:

Recall that f is continuous at a if and only if lim_(xrarra)f(x) = f(a).

This requires three things:

1) lim_(xrarra)f(x) exists.
Note that this implies that the limit is finite. (Saying that a limit is infinite is a way of explaining why the limit does not exist.)

2) f(a) exists (this also implies that #f(a) is finite).

3) items 1 and 2 are the same.

Relating to item 1 recall that lim_(xrarra) exists and equals L if and only if both one-sided limits at a exist and are equal to L

So, if the function is to be continuous on its domain, then all of its limits as xrarra^+ for a in the domain must be finite.

We can make one of the limits oo by making the domain have an exclusion.

Once you see one example, it's fairly straightforward to find others.

f(x) = 1/x

Is continuous on its domain, but lim_(xrarr0^+)1/x = oo