Question #c3676

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Question #c3676

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Answer 1 · 2016-11-20T19:16:18

See explanation.

Explanation:

A function $y = f (x)$ $y=f(x)$ is an assignment where for every value of $x$ $x$ there is only one corresponding value of $f (x)$ $f(x)$

Explanation 1

The vertical line goes through ever point $(x_{0}, y)$ $(x_0,y)$ for a constant $x_{0}$ $x_0$ and all real $y$ $y$ . This means that for one argument $x_{0}$ $x_0$ there are infinitely many values $y$ $y$ which does not fulfill the condition defining a function $y = f (x)$ $y=f(x)$

Explanation 2

Other way to justify such imposibility is that for every linear function $y = m x + b$ $y=mx+b$ $m$ $m$ is the value of tangent of angle between the graph and $X$ $X$ axis.

If we graph a vertical line we see that the angle between the graph and $X$ $X$ axis is $90^{o}$ $90^o$ , but $tan 90$ $tan90$ does not exist therfore there is no possible value of $m$ $m$ for such graph.

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Question #c3676

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