How do you find the linear approximation of f(x)=ln(x)f(x)=ln(x) at x=1x=1 ?

1 Answer
Jul 31, 2015

Here is the big key: The linear approximation of ff at aa is the tangent line at aa.

Explanation:

The linear approximation of f(x)f(x) at x=ax=a is given by:

L(x) = f(a) + f'(a) (x-a)

The equation of the tangent line to the graph of f at (a, f(a)) is the equation of a line through (a, f(a)) whose slope is f'(a) .

In point-slope form, the line is:

y-f(a) = f'(a)(x-a)

So we can write the tangent line as: y = f(a) +f'(a)(x-a)

I struggled mightily with linear approximation for a week or two before this hit home and I realized that linear approximation is just a particular way of thinking about, writing, and using the tangent line. (My teacher had been saying it, I just didn't see it.)

In this problem

For f(x) = lnx, we have f'(x) = 1/x.

Therefore, f'(1) = 1/1 = 1

We also not that f(1) = ln(1) =0.

The linear approximation is the line:

y-0 = 1(x-1)

Or, simply y = x-1

If you have a calculator of tables for ln you can quickly see that

{: (x," calculator" ln(x), " approx by "x-1),(1.05," "" "0.04879," "" "0.05),(1.01," "" "0.00995," "" "0.01),(0.997," "-.0.003005," "-0.003) :}

Note, however that ln(2) ~~ 0.6931 While the linear approximation gives 2-1 = 1 (not a very good approximation for many purposes)